Show that there's a solution to $x^2 \equiv -1 \pmod {p^2}$ where $p$ is a prime such that $p\equiv 1\pmod{4}$
Formalizing it using Jacobi symbol we want to show that $\left(\frac{-1}{p^2}\right) = 1$ and indeed:
$$ \left(\frac{-1}{p^2}\right) = \left(\frac{-1}{p}\right) \cdot \left(\frac{-1}{p}\right) = \left(\frac{-1}{p}\right)^2=1$$
I didn't use the fact that $p\equiv 1\pmod{4}$.
Is my proof correct?
The Jacobi symbol doesn't tell us that the top number is or is not a quadratic residue. Your calculation is correct, but the fact that $\left(\frac{-1}{p^2}\right) = 1$ doesn't imply that $-1$ is a quadratic residue modulo $p^2.$ For example, take $p=7$. $-1$ is a QNR mod $7$, so $\left(\frac{-1}{7}\right) = -1.$ So the Jacobi symbol $\left(\frac{-1}{7^2}\right) = 1.$ But if $x^2 \equiv -1 \pmod{7^2}$ has a solution, then that solution would work modulo $7$ too.
Instead, note that $p^2$ must have a primitive root $r$ whose order is $p(p-1)$. Since $p\equiv 1 \pmod{4}$, then the order is a multiple of $4$, say $p(p-1)=4k$. Then, with a little work, you can show $(r^k)^2 \equiv -1 \pmod{p^2}$.