Okay, so I just want to confirm something that's been bugging me with regards to inverse functions.
We know that a function $f^{-1}$ is the inverse of $f$ if
- $ \forall x \in \operatorname{Dom}(f), f^{-1}[f(x)]=x $
- $ \forall x \in \operatorname{Dom}(f^{-1}), f[f^{-1}(x)]=x$
Also, the domain of $f$ is the range of $f^{-1}$ and the range of $f$ is the domain of $f^{-1}$.
So am I right in saying that $f(x)=\frac{1}{4}x^2$ where $ x \leq 0$ has no inverse?
Normally I'd say that $f^{-1}(x)= \pm 2\sqrt{x}$
But the domain of $f$ is $x\leq 0$ therefore the range of $f^{-1}$ is $\leq 0$
So $f^{-1}(x)= - 2\sqrt{x}$ will satisfy this condition
However we now have that $f[f^{-1}(x)]=f[-2\sqrt{x}]=\frac{1}{4}(-2\sqrt{x})^2=x$
BUT
$f^{-1}[f(x)]=f^{-1}[\frac{1}{4}x^2]=-2\sqrt{\frac{1}{4}x^2}=-x \ne x$
Am I right in saying that this $f(x)$ indeed has no inverse?
Notice that
$$f^{-1} \left[ \frac14 x^2\right] = -2 \sqrt{\frac14x^2}=-2 \cdot \frac12 \color{blue}{|x|}=-\color{blue}{|x|}=x$$