Existence of homotopy operator is equivalent to zero homology

499 Views Asked by At

Let $(E,\partial)$ be a differential space. A linear map $h:E\to E$ is a homotopy operator if $h\partial+\partial h = {\rm Id}$.

Then, there is a homotopy operator in $E$ if and only if $H(E)=0$.

Checking that such an $h$ forces $H(E)=0$ isn't hard, but I'm having trouble constructing $h$ if $H(E)=0$. I'm happy with hints, since I'm doing this just for fun. This is an exercise in Greub's Linear Algebra book (I don't recall which exercise exactly, but the book is awesome!).

1

There are 1 best solutions below

0
On BEST ANSWER

As you said, one way is trivial. For the other, split $E=E' \oplus F$, where $E'=\ker \partial= \text{Im}~ \partial$ and $F$ is some subspace (you use the fact that we are dealing with vector spaces here). Then define

$$h(e'+f)=\partial|_{F}^{-1}e'.$$

Since $\partial|_{F}: F \to E'$ is a bijection (why?), $h$ is well-defined. Note now that $$\partial h (e'+f)+h \partial(e'+f)=\partial(\partial|_{F}^{-1} e')+h(\partial f)=e'+f.$$

OBS: Caveat lector. You have a very particular chain complex here (a "constant" one), but a chain homotopy raises degree in general. Be careful not to be confused with this (and a lot of quite particular instances in this exercise) in the future when you encounter actual chain complexes in homology.