I had this question on my final exam and I struggled with it.
It asks to prove or disprove the following:
$$\forall m \in Z, \ \forall \ [a] \in Z_{m}, \ \exists \ [b] \in Z_{m}, [a]=[b]^{2} $$
I claimed that it's true, and wrote that for an arbitrary $m$, and an arbitrary $a$, $[a] = [b]^{2}$ is equivalent to solving $x \equiv b^{2} \pmod{m}$ which is possible since $\gcd(m,1) \mid b^2$ .
No way. In $\mathbb{Z}_3$, the equation $x^2 = \hat 2$ has no solution.