In the following equation:
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty g(x) \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}}e^{-(x-\mu)^2/(2\sigma^2)} dx = \frac{1}{\mu^2 - 1} , $$
The function $g(x)$ is unknown and doesn't depend on $\mu$.
Does the solution exist with $\mu>1$?
In the following equation:
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty g(x) \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}}e^{-(x-\mu)^2/(2\sigma^2)} dx = \frac{1}{\mu^2 - 1} , $$
The function $g(x)$ is unknown and doesn't depend on $\mu$.
Does the solution exist with $\mu>1$?
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