My given question:
$x^2=\int_0^x \sin a (x-t)y(t)dt$ ; where $a\ne 0$
My attempt: Knowing this is first kind Volterra, I make my way to second kind through differentiation, using Leibniz for the right:
$2x=\sin a \int_0^x y(t)dt$
Not really 2nd form, yet differentiation once more seems to find $y(x)$ inductively thinking. Using the idea of 'Fundamental Theorem of Calculus':
$2=y(x)\sin a $
hence,
$y(x)=\frac{2}{\sin a}$
My thought process sort of runs dry here.