Two questions about the proof of Doob-Meyer (p. 25 and p. 27, respectively):
Suppose $\{B_t,\mathcal F_t,t\ge0\}$ is a martingale of bounded variation, and that for every bounded and right-continuous martingale $\{\xi_t,\mathcal F_t\}$, we have $E(\xi_tB_t)=0$. Then for any bounded random variable $\xi$, $E(\xi B_t)=0$.
Suppose [we have for some $a>0$ given (added; thanks to Saz for clarifing)] that $E\int_{(0,a]}\xi_s\,dA_s=E\int_{(0,a]}\xi_{s-}\,dA_s$ for every bounded, right-continuous martingale $\{\xi_t,\mathcal F_t\}$. Then $E\int_{(0,t]}\xi_s\,dA_s=E\int_{(0,t]}\xi_{s-}\,dA_s$ for all $t\in(0,a]$.
For 1, KS notes that we can select $\{\xi_t,\mathcal F_t\}$ a right-continuous modification of $\{E[\xi|\mathcal F_t],\mathcal F_t\}$. So we have $E[\xi_t B_t]=0$ for every $t$. This is fine; I don't see how to go from this observation to $E[\xi B_t]=0$. Independence of $\xi_t$ and $B_t$ would suffice, but we don't have anything like that, and I don't see how to use a conditioning argument to achieve something similar.
For 2, it would suffice to verify that $s\mapsto X_{(s\wedge t)-}\equiv \lim_{k\nearrow s} X_{k\wedge t}$, since then $$E\int_{(0,a]}\xi_{(s\wedge t)-}=E\int_{(0,t]}\xi_{s-}+E\int_{(t,a]}\xi_t,$$ $$E\int_{(0,a]}\xi_{s\wedge t}=E\int_{(0,t]}\xi_s+E\int_{(t,a]}\xi_t.$$ But I'm not sure if this is the correct definition of a left-limit of a minimum. Maybe it's $X_{(s\wedge t)-}\equiv\lim_{k\nearrow s\wedge t} X_k$.
Any suggestions on 1 and input on definitions in 2 would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance!