A nonempty topological space $X$ is a Baire space iff player I has no winning strategy in the Choquet game $G_X$.
I have several questions about this proof.
$(\Leftarrow)$
How can he assume the existence of a sequence $(G_n)$ of dense open sets?
Moreover, how can he assume that $\bigcap_n G_n \cap U_0 = \emptyset,$ if they're dense?
He takes a $V_0 \subseteq U_0$ and claims that $V_0 \cap G_0 \neq \emptyset$. But I thought we only knew that $\bigcap_n G_n \cap U_0 = \emptyset$? How can we know for sure that $G_0$ kills it?
$(\Rightarrow)$
What is it mean to show that $U_0$ is not "Baire"? I thought we had to show that $X$ is not Baire. I am confused about the logical implication too. If assuming player I has a winning strategy implies that $X$ is not Baire, then player I not having a winning strategy doesn't necessarily have to imply that $X$ is Baire?
Where he says that $\cup \mathcal {U}_p$ is dense in $U_n$, does that mean that the union of all possible responses $U_{n+1}$ is dense in $U_n$?
If $W_n = \cup \{U_n: (U_0, V_0, \ldots, U_n) \in S \}$ then isn't that the same as $\cup \mathcal{U}_p$ for $p = (U_0, V_0, \ldots, U_n)$? Then wouldn't we only have that $W_n$ is dense in $U_{n-1}$? How do we get that it is dense in $U_0$?
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We claim that $\bigcap_n W_n = \emptyset.$ Otherwise, if $x \in \bigcap_n W_n$, there is unique $(U_0, V_0, U_1, V_1, \ldots ) \in [S]$ with $x \in U_n$ for each $n$, so $\bigcap_n U_n \neq \emptyset,$ a contradiction.
My question is how do we know that $(U_0, V_0, U_1, V_1, \ldots )$ is unique? I see how the $U_i$ are unique since they are disjoint, but what about the $V_i$?
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Let, by an application of Zorn's Lemma, $\mathcal{V}_p$ be a maximal collection of nonempty open subsets $V_n \subseteq U_n$ such that $\{V_n^*: V_n \in \mathcal{V}_p \}$ is pairwise disjoint. Put in $S$ all $ (U_0, V_0, \ldots U_,n, V_n, U_{n+1})$ with $V_n \in \mathcal {V}_p$. Then $\mathcal{U}_p = \{U_{n+1}:(V_0, \ldots, U_n, V_n, U_{n+1}) \in S \} = \{V_n^*: V_n \in \mathcal{V}_p \}$ is a family of pairwise disjoint sets and $\bigcup \mathcal {U}_p$ is dense in $U_n$ by the maximality of $\mathcal {V}_p,$ since if $\bar{V_n} \subseteq U_n$ is nonempty, open and disjoint from $\bigcup \mathcal{U}_p$, then $\mathcal {V}_p \cup \{\bar{V}_n \}$ violates the maximality of $\mathcal {V}_p$.
I honestly have no idea what's going on here. Why distinguish between $\mathcal {V}_p$ and $\mathcal {U}_p$? What is $\bigcup \mathcal {U}_p$? Why do we need the sets to be pairwise disjoint? Why does the maximality of $\mathcal {V}_p$ imply that $\bigcup \mathcal {U}_p$ is dense and why do we need that this is dense?
$\Leftarrow$:
$\Rightarrow$: