I am reading the book p-adic Numbers, p-adic Analysis, and Zeta-Functions by Koblitz, and I am trying to understand the proof of the theorem on page 61:
Let $K$ be a finite field extension of $\mathbb{Q}_p$. Then there exists a field norm on $K$ which extends the the norm $\vert \hspace{0.5em} \vert_p$ on $\mathbb{Q}_p$.
One of the things that is first mentioned in the proof is that the function \begin{array}{rcl}\vert\alpha\vert_p:=\vert\mathbb{N}_{K/\mathbb{Q}_p}(\alpha)\vert^{\frac{1}{n}}_p\end{array}is multiplicative, where the norm on the RHS is the usual $\vert \hspace{0.5em} \vert_p$ on $\mathbb{Q}_p$ and $n=[K:\mathbb{Q}_p]$. This is the part that confuses me.
By definition, $\mathbb{N}_{K/\mathbb{Q}_p}(\alpha\cdot \beta)= (\mathbb{N}_{\mathbb{Q}_p(\alpha\cdot \beta)/\mathbb{Q}_p}(\alpha\cdot \beta))^{[K:\mathbb{Q}_p(\alpha\cdot\beta)]}$. For the function to be multiplicative, I would need the equality $$\mathbb{N}_{\mathbb{Q}_p(\alpha\cdot \beta)/\mathbb{Q}_p}(\alpha)=\mathbb{N}_{\mathbb{Q}_p(\alpha)/\mathbb{Q}_p}(\alpha).$$However, it is not in general true that $\alpha\in\mathbb{Q}_p(\alpha\cdot\beta)$ so the above equality does not make sense. What am I missing?
Use another definition of the norm $N_{K/\mathbb Q_p}(x)$ for $x \in K$. It is by definition the product of all $\sigma(x)$, where $\sigma$ runs through all $\mathbb Q_p$-embeddings of $K$ into $\overline{\mathbb Q_p}$. It is obvious by this definition that $N_{K/\mathbb Q_p}(xy) = N_{K/\mathbb Q_p}(x) N_{K/\mathbb Q_p}(y)$ for all $x, y \in K$.