I have this problem:
Let $V=V(Y^2-X^2(X+1))\subset \mathbb{A}^2$, the zero set of the polynomial $G(X,Y)=Y^2-X^2(X+1)\in K[X,Y]$ for a field $K$.
In my notes it says: If $F(X,Y)\in I(V)$ then $F(X,Y)=H(X,Y)(Y^2-X^2(X+1))$ for some $H\in K[X,Y]$.
This seems obvious but I'm not sure if we can definitely do this when $K$ is not algebraically closed. I want to use the following result:
"If $F\in K[X,Y]$ is irreducible and $V(F)$ is infinite, then $I(V(F))=(F)$"
If $K$ is algebraically closed then the above holds, so no problem there, but in my notes we don't assume this.
The result is true by the Nullstellensatz if $K$ is algebraically closed, as you correctly noted.
It may be however be false for non algebraically closed $K$. Here is a counterexample:
For the field $K=\mathbb F_2=\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z$ the zero set of $G$ is $$V=V(G)=\{(0,0),(1,0)\}\subset \mathbb A^2( \mathbb F_2)=\mathbb F_2^2$$
The polynomial $F(X,Y)=Y\in \mathbb F_2[X,Y]$ vanishes on $V$, i.e. $Y\in I(V)$, but there is clearly no polynomial $H(X,Y)\in \mathbb F_2[X,Y]$ for which $Y=H(X,Y)(Y^2-X^2(X+1))$