There is a proof in my math textbook about the fact that $\root \of 2$ is irrational.
Proof:
Lets assume that $\root \of 2$ is rational.Then there will exist $2$ coprime natural numbers $p$ , $q > 1$ such that , $$ \root \of 2 = \frac{p}{q} \to 2 = \frac{p^2}{q^2} \to 2q = \frac{p^2}{q}$$
Obviously , $2q$ is an integer but $\frac{p^2}{q}$ is not a integer , because $p$ and $q$ are natural numbers , coprime and $q > 1$. So,
$$2q \neq \frac{p^2}{q} \to \root \of 2 \neq \frac{p}{q}$$
So , $\root \of 2$ is an irrational number.$\square$
But the confusion to me is , it seems like I can use this argument to show that $\root \of 4$ is an irrational number.
Proof:
Lets assume that $\root \of 4$ is rational.Then there will exist $2$ coprime natural numbers $p$ , $q > 1$ such that , $$ \root \of 4 = \frac{p}{q} \to 4 = \frac{p^2}{q^2} \to 4q = \frac{p^2}{q}$$
Obviously , $4q$ is an integer but $\frac{p^2}{q}$ is not a integer , because $p$ and $q$ are natural numbers , coprime and $q > 1$. So,
$$4q \neq \frac{p^2}{q} \to \root \of 4 \neq \frac{p}{q}$$
So , $\root \of 4$ is an irrational number.$\square$
Can someone tell me what is wrong with this proof?
You begin your proof saying that $\sqrt4=\frac pq$ with $p$ and $q$ natural coprimes greater than $1$. That works in the case of $\sqrt2$, since $\sqrt2$ is not a natural number, and then, yes, if it could be written as $\frac pq$ with $p$ and $q$ natural coprime numbers, then both of them would have to be greater than $1$. But $\sqrt4$ is a natural number. And the assumption that $\sqrt4$ can be written as $\frac pq$ with $p$ and $q$ coprime and $p,q>1$ is false.