I want to show that there is an injective homomorphism from $D_6 \to S_5$ where $D_6$ denotes the dihidral group of order 12 and $S_5$ the symmetric group. But I'm not sure how I can do this efficiently.
I define $f: D_6 \to S_5$ by $f(\sigma) = (12)$ and $f(\rho) = (123)(45)$, with $\sigma$ being a reflection and $\rho$ being a rotation.
I know that $D_6$ is generated by $\rho$ and $\sigma$ and that $S_5$ is generated $(12), (23), (34), (45)$.
So what is the fastest way, for someone who is just starting with algebra, to show that this is a homomorphism? Do I have to show it explicitly for all 12 elements?
What confuses me is that you have to show for all $x,y \in D_6$ we have $f(xy)=f(x)(y)$, while $x$ and $y$ can be any combination of $\rho$ and $\sigma$.
Lastly, what is the fastest way to show it's kernel is trivial without going over all elements?

The homomorphism is clearly injective on the cyclic subgroup $C_6$ of rotations, so a nontrivial kernel would have to contain a reflection, but all the reflections are conjugate and kernels are normal so $\sigma$ would be in the kernel, a contradiction.
Also some discussion on how your construction of $f$ is good. Since $\rho$ has order $6$ it must be sent to a permutation of order $6$. The order of a permutation is the lcm of its cycle lengths (in its disjoint cycle representation). There are no $6$-cycles in $S_5$, which forces an element of order $6$ to have the cycle type you chose, the most obvious being $(123)(45)$. Then the reflection $\sigma$ must be sent to an involution in the symmetric group, and conjugating $(123)(45)$ must yield its inverse $(321)(45)$. Conjugating a permutation just relabels the cycle type according to the permutation conjugated by, so our permutation of order two can be chosen to be any $2$-cycle as that would reverse the cyclic ordering of $(123)$, hence $(12)$ works.
The defining relations of $\rho$ and $\sigma$ are $\rho^6=\sigma^2=e$ and $\sigma\rho\sigma^{-1}=\rho^{-1}$. There is a universal property that says we need only check $f(\rho)$ and $f(\sigma)$ satisfy the same relations to assume it extends to a homomorphism, although while this is "intuitive" to be fair it is indeed probably outside the scope of the elementary context of wherever this question came from, so perhaps take this to be some ideas or tangential discussion.
This idea can of course be made elementary though: write down a $2\times2$ multiplication table for the dihedral group using symbols $\sigma\rho^i$ and $\rho^i$ (with $i$ an arbitrary integer), and this will cut down the amount of work required to check $f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$ to a manageable level.