Exercise in a book I am currently reading asks that I prove Fermat's little theorem as a consequence of the fact that in $\Bbb Z_p$ for any $x$ and $y$, $(x+y)^p=x^p+y^p$. Although this feels like it should be something very simple, the solution escapes me.
Edit: rephrased the question to avoid ambiguity
Here's one way to see it : this result implies that the set of $x$ such that $x^p=x$ is actually a subfield of any characteristic $p$ field $K$.
Taking $K=\mathbb{Z/pZ}$, we see that it doesn't have many subfields...