I am trying to understand the proof for one direction of the following theorem:
I am confused about the part in red. Why does this work? Has it something to do with the Frobenius endomorphism?
2026-02-23 02:54:22.1771815262
Field is perfect iff every element has pth root.
312 Views Asked by user482939 https://math.techqa.club/user/user482939/detail AtRelated Questions in FIELD-THEORY
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