Let $k$ be a algebraicly closed field and $p \in k^2$.
It is to show, that if $z \in k(k^2)=\mathrm{Frac}(k[X,Y])$ is defined in every point $q \in k^2\backslash \{p\}$, then it already holds that $z \in k[X,Y]$.
($z\in k[X,Y]$ defined in $q \in k^2$ means that $\exists u,v \in k[X,Y]$ with $v(q)\neq 0$ and $z=\frac{u}{v}$.)
I started with saying that $k^2 \backslash \{p\}\subseteq \mathrm{Def}(z)=\{q \in k^2 |\,\, \mathrm{z \,\, defined \,\, in \,\,} q\}$ and so it has to hold that $p \in \mathrm{Def}(z)$, because $z \in k[X,Y]$ if and only if $\mathrm{Pol}(z):=k^2 \backslash \mathrm{Def}(z)=\emptyset$ (something that was already proven). But that's as far as I got.
Take any two points $x_1,x_2\in \mathbf A^2$ and the appropriate $u_1,v_1,u_2,v_2$.
Since $k[X,Y]$ is UFD, you can assume without loss of generality that $u_1,v_1$ and $u_2,v_2$ have no common divisors.
Use this to show that $u_1v_2=u_2v_1$ and deduce that $v_1$ divides $v_2$ and vice versa, and conclude that $v_1(x_2)\neq 0$, and, since $x_2$ is arbitrary, by the Nullstellensatz, $v_1$ is constant.