I have this question:
find the antiderivative $F\left(t\right)$ of $f\left(t\right)=ln^2x$ such that $F\left(1\right)=0$
I just don't understand very well how to do this if they are asking $F\left(t\right)$ and $f\left(t\right)$ is a function of x
I did something and with substitution and integration by parts I got:
$F\left(t\right)=t\cdot ln^2t-2t\cdot lnt+2t-2$
but originally the 't' was 'x'. I just changed it. Is my answer correct? If not I would appreciate some help in understanding these type of questions :)
Thank you!
Yes, your answer is correct. For others that want to see how he got it: $$ F(t) = \int\ln^2{t}dt \\ u=\ln{t} \\ t=e^u \\ du=\frac{dt}{t} \\ F(t) = \int{u^2tdu} \\ = \int{u^2e^udu} \\ =e^u u^2 - 2\int{ue^u du} \\ =e^u u^2 - 2(ue^u - \int{e^u du}) \\ =e^u u^2 - 2ue^u + 2\int{e^u du} \\ F(t)=e^u u^2 - 2ue^u + 2e^u \\ F(t) = t\ln^2{t} - 2t\ln{t} + 2t + c \\ F(1) = 0 \\ 0 = \ln^2{1} - 2\ln{1} + 2 + c \\ 0 = 0 - 0 + 2 + c \\ c = -2 \\ F(t) = t\ln^2{t} - 2t\ln{t} + 2t - 2 $$