In the lecture, the lecturer told us that there exist functions that have a 1-norm or a 2-norm but no infinity-norm. Or to be more formal:
- What are examples of functions satisfying $f \in \mathcal{L}_1$, $f \not\in \mathcal{L}_{\infty}$.
- Secondly what is an example of a function satisfying $f \in \mathcal{L}_2$, $f \not\in \mathcal{L}_{\infty}$.
- The last thing that I was wondering was that the lecturer also asked if we could come up with a function satisfying $f \in \mathcal{L}_2, \lim_{x\to\infty}f(x)=0$.
edit: For point 3 the function I found was $f(x)=\frac{1}{x+1}$ which satisfies the demand.
Where $\mathcal{L_p}$ is defined as $\left( \int_0^\infty x(t)^p dt \right)^{\frac{1}{p}}$, and in the case of $\mathcal{L_\infty}$ it's defined as $\sup_{t \geq 0}|x(t)|_\infty$.
To me it seems counterintuitive to think of a function with a finite integral, but without a supremum. Where is my thinking going astray? Or does it have to do with the domain that you specify for the function in some form or another?
Roughly speaking, you should try to find a function with a vertical asymptote which is near enough from the graph. Note for example that
$$\int_0^1\frac{dt}{\sqrt{t}}=2$$
Then, if $f(t)=t^{-1/2}$ and $g(t)=t^{-1/4}$, $$\|f\|_1=2$$ and $$\|g\|_2=\sqrt 2$$