Find all positive integers $n$ such that $n!$ is the product of two Fibonacci numbers
I found this discussion, but it doesn't quite help my problem. Check if the number is a result of multiplying two fibonacci numbers
Find all positive integers $n$ such that $n!$ is the product of two Fibonacci numbers
I found this discussion, but it doesn't quite help my problem. Check if the number is a result of multiplying two fibonacci numbers
On
I might be overly complicating the stuff but I'll give it a try:
A first step might be to determine all Fibonacci numbers that are equal to some factorial.
from https://mathoverflow.net/questions/114850/is-every-fibonacci-number-fibonacci-prime
Carmichael's theorem says that for all $n \ne 1,2,6,12$, there exists a prime divisor $p$ of $F_{n}$ such that $p \nmid F_k$ for (positive integer) $k \lt n$
the second statement is equivalent to a sort of counterpart going in the other direction: for all $n \ne 1,2,6,12$, there exists a prime divisor $p$ of $F_{n}$ such that $p \nmid F_k$ for $k \gt n$ save only for the obvious exceptions where $k$ is a multiple of $n$ (since $F_{n}\mid F_{k}$ when $n \mid k$).
Assume that $F_i$ has all its prime factors smaller that $i-1$, then since there exists a prime divisor of $i$ which doesn't divide any $F_k$ with $k<i$, and $f(p)\leq p+1$, the only possibility is that this factor is $i-1$ or $i$ (if one of them is prime)[this actually happens, take for instance $F_{23}$].
Notice that $f(p)\leq p+1$ ; $f(2^\ell) = 3.2^{\ell-2}$ ; $f(5)=5$ ; and if $m$ and $n$ are coprime, then $f(m.n)=f(m)f(n)$.
This means that the only possible solutions to $F_i=n!$ are for $n=0,1$ or $2$ (see also Peter comment)
Step 2 is to do the same with $n!=F_iF_j$. A different, probably easier, approach is to say that $n! \geq \sqrt{2\pi n}\left( {n \over e}\right)^n$ while $F_iF_j \leq F_{\max i,j}^2 \leq F_{n+1}^2$ (using the fact that $F_n$ has prime factor of size a least $n-1$ as we proved before).
Hence we want $n! \geq \sqrt{2\pi n}\left( {n \over e}\right)^n \geq 2^{2(n+1)} > F_{n+1}^2 \geq F_iF_j $ this is true for $n \geq 12$ (and again, we conclude using Peter's computations)
disclamer: this might need a bit of cleaning and checking at some point, sorry if it's a bit messy
With the convention that $F_0=0$ and $F_1=1$, for $k>12$ the $k$-th Fibonacci number $F_k$ has a prime factor $p$ satisfying $p\geq k-1$, see here. It follows that if $n!=F_aF_b$ for some positive integers $a$ and $b$, then $a,b\leq n+1$. It is not hard to verify that $F_k\leq\varphi^k$ for all $k\geq0$, and so $a,b\leq n+1$ implies that $$n!=F_aF_b\leq F_{n+1}^2\leq(\varphi^{n+1})^2=\varphi^{2n+2}.$$ Of course the left hand side increases more rapidly than the right hand side as soon as $n\geq\varphi^2$, i.e. $n\geq3$. Then a quick check shows that $7!>\varphi^{16}$, so any solution to $n!=F_aF_b$ must have $n\leq6$. From here it is a routine verification to find that $$0!=F_1F_2,\quad 1!=F_1F_2,\quad 2!=F_2F_3,\quad 3!=F_3F_4,\quad 4!=F_4F_6,\quad 6!=F_5F_{12},$$ and that $5!=120$ is not a product of two Fibonacci numbers.