This is a riddle I have to solve. What is surprising is the "all positive solutions" . Obviously this equation involves the Lambert function, but "positive' is meaningless for complex numbers... I have currently 4 solutions, 0.4745409994, -0.4745409994, i and -i, but one single positive (real) solution. However, the riddle solution must contain more that one value.
The problem is stated exactly like in the title of my question, not $\frac{\ln(x^2)}{x^2}^2 = \pi^2$
Could this be the trick ? $\ln(\ln(x)) = \ln^2(x)$ ?
The positive real solution you got seems to be unique.
We can evaluate: $$\ln^2(x^2)=(x\pi)^2\to \ln(x^2)=x\pi\to x^2=e^{\pi x}\to e^{x\pi}-x^2=0$$
Yes, I ignored negative roots here, but it doesn't matter here because the real roots will have the same absolute value.
What matters here is that $f(x)=e^{x\pi}-x^2\implies f'(x)=\pi e^{\pi x}-2x>0\forall x\in\Bbb R^+$ (and you can check the same for $e^{-\pi x}-x^2$ and $e^{\pi x}-x^{-2}$) so the function is monotone and will only have one solution.