Note: This is the same question posted here, but I am seeking clarification on how my attempt is incorrect (i.e., where I went wrong).
If we let $S\sim{}\text{Unif}(0,1)$, then $U = 2S-1$ and $U^2 = (2S-1)^2$ by location-scale transformation. Letting $X = U^2$ we have $X = (2S-1)^2$.
By universality of the uniform ($X = F^{-1}(S))$, why isn't $F(x) = \frac{\sqrt{x}+1}{2}$ the CDF of $U^2$? I know this is incorrect because $F(x)$ isn't a valid CDF, but I'm a little turned around as to why this logic doesn't work out.
You are misusing this property of the uniform distribution, which w.r.t. the present problem reads
The key point is that the function $F$ must be the CDF of $X=U^2$. In particular, it must satisfy the properties of a continuous cumulative distribution function. Note that the inverse transformation of $X=(2S-1)^2$ is $$ \frac{1\pm\sqrt{X}}2 = S\, , $$ and that many functions which restriction to $(0,1)$ is $x\mapsto\frac12(1+\sqrt{x})$ aren't continuous CDFs! The correct CDF is obtained in the linked post as follows: \begin{aligned} \Bbb P(U^2\leq x) &= \Bbb P(-\sqrt{x}\leq U\leq \sqrt{x}) \\ &= \dots \end{aligned}