$$x_n=\left\{\dfrac{1}{2},\,\dfrac{1}{8},\,\dfrac{1}{128},\,\cdots\right\}=\left\{\frac{1}{2^{n^2-n+1}}\right\}_{n=1}^\infty$$
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{1}{2^{n^{2}-n+1}} = 0.$$
$$ \frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n} = \frac{\frac{1}{2^{(n+1)^{2}-(n+1)+1}}}{\frac{1}{2^{n^{2}-n+1}}} = \frac{1}{{2}^{2n}} \rightarrow 0, \quad n \rightarrow \infty, \quad n \in \mathbb{N}.$$
Therefore $c=0$ (convergence rate), $\rho=1$ (order of convergence) and $x_n$ is superlinearly convergent.
Is this correct? If it is false, Can anyone offer some assistance, please?
Thank you!
You have correctly identified the convergence as superlinear. There two points to be wary of