I am trying to answer this question
Let $Y_1,Y_2,Y_3$ be random variables with pdf $f(x)=2x$ for $0<x<1$. Find $P(Y_1<Y_3)$?
My solution:
Since
$P(Y_1<Y_3)+P(Y_3<Y_1)+P(Y_1=Y_3)=1$
and
$P(Y_3=Y_1)=0$
$P(Y_1<Y_3)=P(Y_3<Y_1)$
then
$P(Y_1<Y_3)=1/2$
Is this correct?
Note: This question was not in English originally. If translated exactly it says "$Y1,Y2,Y3$ are ordered/arranged values for a random sample of size 3". Does this change the question?
Yes indeed, your reasoning is elegant and correct -- for independent random variables.
To confirm, by integration: $$\begin{align}\mathsf P(Y_1<Y_3)&=\int_0^1 \int_0^{y_3} 4y_1y_3~\mathrm d y_1~\mathrm dy_3\\[1ex]&=\int_0^1 2y_3^3~\mathrm dy_3 \\[1ex]&=\tfrac 12\end{align}$$