This is from an exercise in a group theory course I'm taking, I believe the subgroup of $F_2 = \langle x,y\rangle$ generated by $a = xyx^{-1}y$ and $ b = yxy^{-1}x$ is isomorphic to $F_2$. What I've tried is:
Let $\phi : F_2 \rightarrow \langle a,b\rangle$ be a group homomorphism mapping $x$ to $a$ and $y$ to $b$. This is clearly surjective and let's assume an element $1\neq g \in \ker\phi.\;$ If $g= s_1 \cdots s_n$ is a reduced word in $F_2$ with $s_i \in \{x,y,x^{-1},y^{-1}\}$ then
$$\phi(g) = \phi(s_1)\cdots \phi(s_n) = 1$$ and since in any way we multiply the elements $\{xyx^{-1}y, yxy^{-1}x, \left(xyx^{-1}y\right)^{-1}, \left(yxy^{-1}x\right)^{-1}\}$ together nothing cancels out (unless we pair inverses together of course), this implies $\phi(s_1)\cdots \phi(s_n)$ is a reduced word in $\langle a,b\rangle$, which is a contradiction and thus $\phi$ is an isomorphism.
I kinda feel I've went somewhere wrong, also the wording on the exercise was "find the free rank of the subgroup and a freely generating set" so one would expect the generating set would be something different than $\{a,b\}$ and the rank higher than 2 but maybe it's just bad wording. So have I gone anywhere wrong? Also I'm not yet familiar enough with algebraic topology to understand such solutions so try to keep it group theoretic.
You are wrong. This subgroup is a proper free subgroup of rank $2$. Indeed, modulo $[F_2,F_2]$ it is generated by $x^2, y^2$, so modulo the derived subgroup of $F_2$ it is a proper free Abelian subgroup of rank $2$. Thus your subgroup is proper, free as every subgroup of a free group, and its rank is at least $2$. Hence its rank is exactly $2$ since it is $2$-generated.