Having a bit of a struggle understanding problems like these.
This problem was presented under the section of Eulers Totient function (I guess I am supposed to use it), and the solution is like this:
$$11^{\phi(15)} \equiv 1 \ (mod \ 15)$$ $$11^8 \equiv 1 \ (mod \ 15)$$ $$(11^8)^{12} \equiv 1^{12} \ (mod 15)$$ $$11^{96} \cdot 11^4 \equiv 1^4 \ (mod \ 15)$$ $a = 1$
Now manipulating exponents is one thing, I can do that. But I don't understand the first line. Why $11^{\phi(15)}$? And how to approach this problem?
The first line is the Euler-Fermat theorem $$n^{\phi(m)}\equiv 1\pmod m\qquad \text{ if }\gcd(n,m)=1$$
A different method, using the Chinese Remainder Theorem:
We have $$11^{100}\equiv(-1)^{100}\equiv 1 \pmod 3 $$ and $$11^{100}\equiv(1)^{100}\equiv 1 \pmod 5 $$ and so see that $a01$ works as that makes $a\equiv1\equiv 11^{100}\pmod 3$ and $a\equiv 1\equiv 11^{100}\pmod 5$ and consequently $a\equiv 11^{100}\pmod{15}$.