Evaluate :
$\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\infty}x\text{arctanh}(x^{2})e^{-ax^{2}}dx$ where $a>1$
I don't know if we can find closed form or not but I have some results for $a=1,2,3..$
$\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\infty}x\text{arctanh}(x^{2})e^{-x^{2}}dx=\frac{π\text{erfi}(1)}{e}$
$\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\infty}x\text{arctanh}(x^{2})e^{-2x^{2}}dx=\frac{π\text{erfi}(\sqrt {2})}{2e^{2}}$
$\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\infty}x\text{arctanh}(x^{2})e^{-3x^{2}}dx=\frac{π\text{erfi}(\sqrt {3})}{3e^{3}}$
So I think the closed form is :
$\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\infty}x\text{arctanh}(x^{2})e^{-ax^{2}}dx=\frac{π\text{erfi}(\sqrt {a})}{ae^{a}}$
But how can I prove it ?
I know $\text{arctanh}(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{2n+1}}{2n+1}$
But when I use it, I find the series to be divergent!
We need to find:
$$I=\frac{1}{2} \int_0^\infty \tanh^{-1} (y) e^{-a y} dy=\frac{1}{2} \int_0^1 \tanh^{-1} (y) e^{-a y} dy+\frac{1}{2} \int_1^\infty \tanh^{-1} (y) e^{-a y} dy$$
For $y<1$ we have:
$$\tanh^{-1} (y)=\frac{1}{2} \left(\log(1+y)-\log(1-y)\right)$$
For $y>1$ we have:
$$\tanh^{-1} (y)=\frac{1}{2} \left(\log(y+1)-\log(y-1)- \pi i \right)$$
So the imaginary part of the integral is equal to:
$$\Im I=\frac{\pi }{4} \int_1^\infty e^{-a y} dy=\frac{\pi e^{-a} }{4a} $$
The real part consists of three different integrals:
$$\Re I=\frac{1}{4} (I_1+I_2+I_3)$$
$$I_1=\int_0^\infty \log(1+y) e^{-a y} dy=-\frac{e^a}{a} \operatorname{Ei}(-a)$$
Where we have the exponential integral.
$$I_2=-\int_0^1 \log(1-y) e^{-a y} dy=-\frac{e^{-a}}{a} \left(\gamma+\log a-\operatorname{Ei}(a) \right)$$
$$I_3=-\int_1^\infty \log(y-1) e^{-a y} dy=\frac{e^{-a}}{a}(\gamma+\log a)$$
This simplifies to:
$$I_2+I_3=\frac{e^{-a}}{a} \operatorname{Ei}(a)$$
So we finally have:
Let's check numerically. For $a=3$ we have from Wolfram Alpha:
$$2I=0.1261100236\ldots -0.0260684480380\ldots i$$
This is the same as the values given by the closed forms above.
The $\operatorname{erfi}$ result from the OP is not correct.