When I tried solving for the inverse of $f(x)=\frac{1-x}{-x}$, I got this:
$f^{-1}(x)=\frac{1}{1-x}$
I know that the way to check my answer would be to take the inverse of the inverse I just found, but this is what I get:
$f^{-1}(f^{-1}(x))=1-\frac{1}{x}=\frac{x-1}{-x}$
The last part, when multiplied by $\frac{-1}{-1}$ is indeed my original function, but am I allowed to do that? And why does that get lost when taking the inverse?
A better way to check your answer is;
the composite functions of both should be equal to x.
$f(f^{-1}(x))=x$
and
$f^{-1}(f(x))=x$