Let $f(x) = x^3$. Show that for every point $P = (x_0, y_0) \in\mathbb R^2$ there is a tangent to the graph of $f(x)$ that passes through $P$.
I said in order for this to be true $f'(x)$ needs to be defined for all $f(x)$ and for all $x$'s. If this is true then we will have a value for all $f'(x)$. This means that $f(x)$ will be able to give us all types of straight lines that both grows and decreases. So I differentiated $f(x)$ to $3x^2$ and here we can see that $f'(x)$ is defined for all x's and thus there is a line for every $(x_0, y_0)$ that passes through the point $p$.
But in the answers they used mean value theorem etc, but I was wondering if my explanation was totally wrong because I got $0$ point on it.
Considering
$$ \cases{ y = x^3\\ y = y_0+m(x-x_0) } $$
after substitution (on intersection) we have
$$ x^3 = y_0+m(x-x_0) $$
but we need tangency so $m$ should be such that
$$ \phi_m(x)=x^3-(y_0+m(x-x_0))=(x-a)(x-b)^2 $$
meaning that $\phi_m(x)$ have a double root and as a consequence
$$ \cases{a b^2+m x_0-y_0=0\\ 2 a b+b^2+m=0\\ a+2 b=0} $$
and after the elimination of $\{a,b\}$
$$ 4m^3-27x_0^2m^2+54x_0y_0m-27y_0^2=0 $$
which means that there exists always a real root $m^*$ satisfying this polynomial.
NOTE
From $$ \cases{2 a b+b^2+m=0\\ a+2 b=0}\Rightarrow \cases{b^2=\frac m3\\ b^3 =\frac{m x_0-y_0}{2}}\Rightarrow \left(\frac m3\right)^3 = \left(\frac{m x_0-y_0}{2}\right)^2 $$