I've come across a infinite series for which I've had difficulty finding a closed form solution:
$$\sum_{i=1}^\infty \sin^2(\pi/i).$$
I believe that the series does converge and I've tried looking at transformations to different trig functions and exponentials, however the answer remains elusive. Putting this into WolframAlpha yields a numerical result however I'm much more interested in finding a closed form solution if one exists.
Would be swell if anyone could offer some guidance, thanks.
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \sin^2(\frac{\pi}{n}) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1-\cos(\frac{2\pi}{n})}{2} = \frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^\infty \left[\frac{4\pi^2}{2n^2}-\frac{2^4\pi^4}{4!n^4}+\frac{2^6\pi^6}{6!n^6}+\dots\right] = \frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^{n+1}\frac{2^{2n}\pi^{2n}}{(2n)!}\zeta(2n) = \frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^{n+1}\frac{2^{2n}\pi^{2n}}{(2n)!}(-1)^{n+1}\frac{B_{2n}(2\pi)^{2n}}{2(2n)!} = \frac{1}{4}\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{B_{2n}(2\pi)^{4n}}{(2n)!(2n)!}$