I have this exercise but not sure if I'm doing it right $$\lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)} \frac {\sin(x^2-xy)}{\vert x\vert} $$
I assume $\frac {\sin(x^2-xy)}{\vert x\vert}\le\frac {1}{\vert x \vert} $ then the limit goes to infinite and does not exist.
Is that correct? Or there is some Taylor to use, or some direction to search? Thanks for help.
One may recall that, as $u \to 0$, $$ |\sin u| \le |u| $$ giving here, as $(x,y) \to (0,0)$, $$ \left|\frac{\sin(x^2-xy)}{|x|}\right|\le \frac{|x^2-xy|}{|x|}=|x-y| \to 0. $$