Let $f \in L^2[-\pi,\pi] $ and let: $$f = \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}\hat{f}(k)e^{ikx}$$ the Fourier expansion of $f$. I want to find a convoultion kernel $g_N$ so that:
$$\frac{1}{2\pi}h(x)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}g_N(x-t)f(t)dt = \sum_{k=-N}^{N}\hat{f}(k)e^{ikx}$$
i.e. an ideal low pass filter. By the convolution theorem:
$$\frac{1}{2\pi}\hat{h}(k)=\hat{f}(k)\hat{g_N}(k)= \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} \hat{f}(k) & \mbox{if $k \leq N$};\\ 0 & \mbox{if $x > N$}.\end{array} \right. $$
So we get:
$$\hat{g_N}(k)= \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} 1 & \mbox{if $k \leq N$};\\ 0 & \mbox{if $x > N$}.\end{array} \right. $$
And
$$g_N(x) = \sum_{k=-N}^{N}e^{ikx}$$
But how do I transform $g_N$ to a "real" form?
Thanks.
How about this: since
$e^{ikx} + e^{-ikx} = (\cos kx + i\sin kx) + (\cos kx - i\sin kx) = 2\cos kx, \tag{1}$
when we write $g_N(x)$ in the form
$g_N(x) = 1 + \sum_{k = 1}^{k = N} (e^{ikx} + e^{-ikx}) \tag{2}$
we immediately see that
$g_N(x) = 1 + 2\sum_{k = 1}^{k = N} \cos kx, \tag{3}$
we see that $g_N(x)$ is in a real form as is, as real as real can be!
Hope this helps. Cheerio,
and as always,
Fiat Lux!!!