I would like to know if this reasoning is correct:
I want to find a conformal map from $\mathbb D$ to $\mathbb C$.
My reasoning: First we seek a conformal map from $\mathbb H$ to $\mathbb D$ which is easy to find: $$A=\begin{pmatrix}1&-i\\1&i\end{pmatrix}\leftrightarrow \phi_A(z)=\frac{z-i}{z+i}\text{ and invert it to obtain :}\,\phi_A^{-1}(z)=-i\frac{z+1}{z-1}$$ such that $\phi_A^{-1}:\mathbb D\rightarrow\mathbb H$ is conformal.
Now we seek to extend $\mathbb H$ to $\mathbb C$. FOr this, we consider doubling the argument thus considering the map: $$\phi_{\mathbb D\rightarrow\mathbb C}(z)=(\phi_A^{-1})(z)^2=\left(-i\frac{z+1}{z-1}\right)^2=-\frac{(z+1)^2}{(z-1)^2}=-\frac{z+1}{z-1}$$ which is a conformal map from $\mathbb D$ to $\mathbb C$.
Thanks in advance.
NB: $\mathbb D=D(0,1)$, $\mathbb H$ is the upper open half plane.
While you used some very good ideas in this attempt, it turns out to be incorrect (and ultimately doomed):