Let $(X_n)$ be iid random variables such that $P(X_n=1)=\frac{1}{6}$, $P(X_n=0)=\frac{1}{3}$, $P(X_n=-1)=\frac{1}{2}$, I want to prove that P(there is an integer $k$ such that $X_1+...+X_k=1$)=$\frac{1}{3}$.
Interpreting this as a Markov chain with states {$1,0,-1,-2,...$} we want the probability of getting to the state $1$ starting at state $0$: p_0, in the general probability of getting to the state $1$ starting at state $n$: $p_n$.
We have the following infinite set of equations:
$p_0=\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{3}p_0+\frac{1}{2}p_{-1}$
$p_{-1}=\frac{1}{6}p_0+\frac{1}{3}p_{-1}+\frac{1}{2}p_{-2}$
$p_{-2}=\frac{1}{6}p_{-1}+\frac{1}{3}p_{-2}+\frac{1}{2}p_{-3}$
and in general:
$p_{-k}=\frac{1}{6}p_{-k+1}+\frac{1}{3}p_{-k}+\frac{1}{2}p_{-k-1}$
Solving this in terms of $p_0$ we get that $p_{-k}=p_0+p_0(\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{3^k})-(\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{3^k})=\frac{1}{2}(3p_0-1)-(\frac{1}{3})^k (\frac{1}{2}p_0-\frac{1}{2})$
But right now $p_0$ could be arbitrary from $(0,1)$, we need one more equation/information.
$p_{-k}$ is decreasing when $k$ is increasing and it is bounded from below by $0$ so have a limit, can we use it somehow? What can we do to find out that $p_0=\frac{1}{3}$
Method 1
There are two missing pieces of information you need. The first is $$ p_{-1}=p_0^2 $$ Why? In order to start from $-1$ and reach $1$, there needs to be a point where the Markov chain reaches $0$ in between. This is because the chain can only move upwards in increments of $+1$. Therefore, the event of moving $(-1\to 1)$ can be split into two events: moving from $(-1\to 0)$, and then moving from $(0\to 1)$. Furthermore, these two moves are independent, because of the Markov property. The symmetry of the process implies, $P(-1 \to 0)=P(0\to 1)=p_0$, so $P(-1 \to 1)=P(-1\to 0)\cdot P(0\to 1)=p_0^2$.
This equation, combined with $p_0=\tfrac16+\tfrac13p_0+\tfrac12p_{-1}$, gives a quadratic equation involving $p_0$ alone: $$ p_0=\tfrac16 + \tfrac13p_0+\tfrac12 p_0^2 $$ Solving this, we conclude that either $p_0=1/3$ or $p_0=1$. How do we determine which of these is correct?
We can rule out the possibility of $p_0=1$ as follows. Assume that $p_0=1$. This means that starting from $0$, the Markov chain will certainly reach $1$. Once the chain reaches $1$, instead of stopping the process, let us allow the process to continue. Starting from $1$, since $p_0=1$, the chain will certainly move to $2$ (moving $1\to 2$ is equiprobable to moving $0\to 1$). Continuing, the chain will certainly move to $3$, then $4$, and so on, eventually reaching arbitrarily high positive numbers.
Let $S_n=X_1+\dots+X_n$. The strong law of large numbers implies that $S_n/n\to E[X_1]=-1/3$, with probability $1$. This means there exists a number $N$ such that $n>N$ implies $S_n<(-1/3+\epsilon)n$, for any $\epsilon>0$. Since $S_n$ is almost surely eventually negative, it cannot reach arbitrarily high numbers, contradicting the previous paragraph.
Method 2: Martingale convergence
Again, let $S_n=X_1+\dots+X_n$. Define $$ M_n=3^{S_n} $$ You can prove that $M_n$ is a martingale, with respect to the natural filtration. Indeed, $$ \mathbb E[M_{n+1}\mid M_n] = \tfrac16 3^{S_n+1}+\tfrac 13 3^{S_n}+\tfrac 12 3^{S_n-1}=3^{S_n}=M_n. $$ Furthermore, since $-\infty \le S_n\le 1$, we have $0\le M_n\le 3$. Since $M_n$ is bounded, $\lim_{n\to\infty} M_n$ exists with probability $1$, and the expected value of the limiting variable is the same as $E[M_0]$ (Martingale convergence theorem). Letting $M_\infty$ be the limiting variable, we have $$ \mathbb E[M_\infty]=\mathbb E[M_0]=3^0=1 $$ On the other hand, $\lim_{n\to\infty}S_n$ can only be $-\infty$ or $1$, so $\lim_{n\to\infty} M_n$ can only be $0$ or $3$. Therefore, $$ \mathbb E[M_\infty]=p_0\cdot 3+(1-p_0)\cdot 0 $$ Combining the last two equations, you conclude $p_0=1/3$.