If $a4^{\tan x}+a4^{-\tan x}-2=0$ has a real solution, where $0\leq x\leq \pi,x\neq \frac{\pi}{2},$ then interval of $a$ is
Thoughts on that problem:
Via the arithmetic-geometric inequality (AM-GM), we have
$$4^{\tan x}+4^{-\tan x}\geq 2\implies\frac{2}{a}\geq 2\implies a<1$$
But this is not right
Help me to solve it please
HINT:
We have $4^{\tan x}+4^{-\tan x}=2/a$ so let $u=4^{\tan x}$. Then we get the equation $$u+\frac1u=\frac2a\implies u^2-\frac2au+1=0.$$ After solving for $u$, the value of $x$ can be found by $x=\arctan\log_4 u$ and you can determine the ranges accordingly.