What we are allowed to use - 1) The fact that limit of $(1+1/n)^n$ exists and assumed to be some real number $e$ 2) Subsequencial properties of limits of sequences 3) Basic properties of limit
In the previous question $x(n) = (1+1/n^2)^{(2(n^2))}$
We just used the fact that the given sequence is square of the subsequence of the sequence $(1+1/n)^n$ And shall thus converge to $e^2$
I'd expect we'd be required to use something similar in this question but I am unable to, can't see a valid subsequence forming.
Edit - This question is not a duplicate of the question suggested as that question assumes that a lot more theorems have been proven, especially, Limits of log.
The limit that defines the constant $e$ is $$ e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac1n\right)^n $$ Since $x^2$ is a continuous function, we get $$ e^2=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac2n+\frac1{n^2}\right)^n $$ It is simple to see that $$ \left(1+\frac2n\right)^n\le\left(1+\frac2n+\frac1{n^2}\right)^n\le\left(1+\frac2n\right)^n\left(1+\frac1{n^2}\right)^n $$ which is the same as $$ \left(1+\frac2n+\frac1{n^2}\right)^n\left(1-\frac1{n^2+1}\right)^n\le\left(1+\frac2n\right)^n\le\left(1+\frac2n+\frac1{n^2}\right)^n $$ which implies by Bernoulli's Inequality $$ \left(1+\frac2n+\frac1{n^2}\right)^n\left(1-\frac{n}{n^2+1}\right)\le\left(1+\frac2n\right)^n\le\left(1+\frac2n+\frac1{n^2}\right)^n $$ The Squeeze Theorem says $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac2n\right)^n=e^2 $$