I'm trying to understand this example given in the book, "Introduction to probability models" by Sheldon Ross and am having trouble. The example (4.11) states:
"Suppose that balls are successively distributed among 8 urns, with each ball being equally likely to be put in any of these urns. What is the probability that there will be exactly 3 nonempty urns after 9 balls have been distributed?"
The one step transition matrix is given by
$p=\begin{bmatrix} 1/8 & 7/8 & 0 & 0 \\0 & 2/8 & 6/8 & 0 \\0 & 0 & 3/8&5/8 \\0 & 0 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}$
$p^{4}=\begin{bmatrix} 0.0002 & 0.0256 & 0.2563 & 0.7178 \\0 & 0.0039 & 0.0952 & 0.9009 \\0 & 0 & 0.0198&0.9802 \\0 & 0 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}$
The solution that is given is
$p^{8}_{1,3}= = 0.0002 × 0.2563 + 0.0256 × 0.0952 + 0.2563 × 0.0198 + 0.7178 × 0 = 0.00756$
I don't understand why the values 0.002 is multiplied by 0.2563 and 0.0256 is multiplied by 0.0952. Shouldn't the answer just be 0.2563?
Firstly, 9 balls have been distributed so the answer is an entry in the matrix of P to the power of 8 but not P to the power of 4. The state 1 in the one step transition matrix means one urn has been occupied so there are already one ball in one of these 8 urns. One step means a distribution of a ball. Hence we distribute 8 times from 1 ball to 9 balls and it is P to the power of 8.
Actually, the multiplication of P to the power of 4 is not a shortcut. It is an application of Chapman-Kolmogolov equations. In the discrete markov chain, this equation can be expressed in terms of matrix muliplication.the nth step transition matrix may be obtianed by multiplying the matrix P by itself n times