I am trying to find the pre-image of $f$, $\ f^{-1}([0,+\infty))\ $, where $f:\mathbb{R^2}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ and $f(x,y)=y(x-y).$
From a previous post, I was told to solve $f(x,y)\geq0$, but when I try to do this, I get $$ y\geq0 $$ and $$ y\leq x $$
This does not match the answer provided in the book, which also states that $$ y\leq 0 $$ $$ y\leq x $$
Why is this the case? It seems like a trivial question, but I don't understand.
It all goes back to the same thing : the product of two numbers is non-negative if and only if both of them have the same sign (or any one is zero).
Therefore, if $f(x,y) \geq 0$ then $y(x-y) \geq 0$, which means that the product of $y$ and $x-y$ is non-negative. So :
Either $y$ is non-negative and $x - y$ is non-negative i.e. $y \geq 0, x \geq y$.
Or, $y$ is non-positive and $x-y$ is non-positive i.e. $y \leq 0, x \leq y$.
Consequently, $f^{-1}([0,\infty)) = \{(x,y) : 0 \geq y \geq x\} \cup \{(x,y) : 0 \leq y \leq x\}$.