I am trying to find the relationship between $$\exists X \; (p(X) ∧ q(X))$$ and $$\exists X \; p(X) ∧ \forall X \; q(X).$$
I believe that quantifiers cannot be used in forming truth tables, after all both expressions become equal if we take out the quantifiers.
Without a truth table I do not know how to find the relationship between these two expression.
The formula $\exists x Px \wedge \forall x Qx$ states "There exists at least one $x$ such that $x$ is $P$, and for every $x$, $x$ is $Q$."
The formula $\exists x [Px \wedge Qx]$ states "There exists at least one $x$ such that $x$ is $P$ and $x$ is $Q$."
If the former is true, then so is the latter. However, if the the latter is true, then the former is not necessarily true. In other words, it may be the case there is exactly one element of the given domain that is both $P$ and $Q$, and that element may be the only element that is $P$ or $Q$. If that is in fact true, then the latter statement is satisfied, but the former statement is not satisfied because it asserts every element in the domain is $Q$.