Have a triangle with vectors $A,B,C$. Then have $D$ as the middle point of $\overline{AB}$ and $E$ as the middle point of $\overline{AC}$:

Demonstrate that $\vec{DE} = \frac{1}{2}\vec{BC}$.
Observe that $$\frac{1}{2}\vec{BC} = \frac{1}{2}\vec{AB} - \frac{1}{2}\vec{AC}$$
From the hypothesis, we have that
$$\frac{1}{2}\vec{AB} = \vec{AD}$$
and
$$\frac{1}{2}\vec{AC} = \vec{AE}$$
So:
$$\frac{1}{2}\vec{BC} = \vec{AD} - \vec{AE}$$
$$\frac{1}{2}\vec{BC} = \vec{ED}$$
Hmm... I'm not sure what to say. Technically, this is not what I wanted to demonstrate (I wanted $\vec{DE}$, not $\vec{ED}$).
However, $\vec{ED}$ clearly has the same length as $\vec{DE}$, so it kind of works out at the end...
... What do you think? Is this proof good for this, or did I make some mistake somewhere?
In your diagram you took direction of $\vec{DE}$ opposite to $\vec{BC}$. Hence, you get the result. Your result is correct.