$f(n) = n + (\log n)^{2}, \quad g(n) = n + \log(n^{2})$.
Log is assumed to be base 2.
Now I put this in the as $f(n)/g(n)$ which is of the form $\frac \infty{\infty}$. So then I applied L'hopital's rule giving me
$f(n) = 1 \ + \ 2 log(n) \frac1{n(ln(2))}$
$g(n) = 1 + 2\ \frac1{n(ln(2))}$ now if I do $f(n)/g(n)$ I get
$\frac {1 \ + \ 2 log(n) \frac1{n(ln(2))}} { 1 + 2\frac1{n(ln(2))}}$
Now since the $\frac1{n(ln(2))}$ part in both equations tends to 0, I'm left with 1/1 and thus $f(n) = \Theta g(n)$
Is this correct?
Yes. We can also use another approach, without the heavy artillery of L'H\^opital's Rule: $$ {f(n) \over g(n)} = {n + (\log n)^2 \over n + \log (n^2)} = {n + (\log n)^2 \over n + 2 \log n} = {n \; (1 + (\log n)^2/n) \over n \; (1 + 2 (\log n) /n)} = {1 + (\log n)^2/n \over 1 + 2 (\log n) /n}. $$ We see that, as $n \rightarrow \infty$, both the numerator and denominator tend to $1$.