quick question. There is a question in the book saying "Every finite subset of a Hausdorff space is closed." The proof uses the fact that for each point in $X\setminus\{p\}$ there is a neighborhood contained in $X\setminus\{p\}$ the Hausdorff condition and hence $X\setminus\{p\}$ is open so $\{p\}$ is closed the set is the finite union finite sets.
The very next problem states: "The only Hausdorff topology on a finite set is the discrete topology." Well, in the discrete topology every $\{p\}$ is an open set, not closed as the proof above states. What is going on here?
Both statements are true, and the issue here is that openness/closedness aren't mutually exclusive properties for a subset (as long as the space isn't connected, that is).