This is a question regarding the first part of Spivak's proof of Stokes' theorem. Let $\omega$ be a $(k-1)$-form on $[0,1]^k$. Then $\omega$ is the sum of $(k-1)$-forms of the type $$ fdx^1\wedge\dots\wedge\hat{dx^i}\wedge\dots\wedge dx^k, $$ and it suffices to prove the theorem for each of these. Now Spivak claims the following (for the case $j=i$): $$ \int_{[0,1]^{k-1}}I^{k*}_{(j,\alpha)}(fdx^1\wedge\dots\wedge\hat{dx^i}\wedge\dots\wedge dx^k) =\int_{[0,1]^k}f(x^1,\dots,\alpha,\dots,x^k)dx^1\dots dx^k. $$ Now, I know that a couple of posts have already been made on this part of the proof, but those were not helpful to me, so I will proceed to clarify my own confusion.
Now, I understand that we have $f(x^1,\dots,\alpha,\dots,x^k)$, because $$ f^*\omega(p)(v_1,\dots,v_k)=\omega(f(p))(f_*(v_1),\dots,f_*(v_k)), $$ and in our case $f=I^k_{(j,\alpha)}$. So the part $\omega(f(p))$ is clear to me. I just don't understand why we get $dx^1\dots dx^k$.
And how do we go from $[0,1]^{k-1}$ to $[0,1]^k$? Initially, I wanted to equate the two integrands, but I don't believe that's possible because we don't integrate over the same set, so I'm kind of stuck right now.
You have already started out with the right formula ($f^*(w) = \dots$). Now ask yourself the following questions (and try to answer them):
What is $I^k_{(j,\alpha)*}$?
What is $\int_0^1 f(x^1, \dots, \alpha, \ldots, x^k) \, dx^i$ (with $\alpha$ at position $i$)? -- Spoiler: note that the interval over which you take the integral has length $=1$ and the integrand is constant wrt to the integration variable -- and
What do you get if you integrate the result of the integral in the previous question over $[0,1]^{k-1}$ viewed as $[0,1]^k$ with the $i$-th factor missing?