Let $A\in \mathbb{R}^{n\times m}$ be an arbitrary matrix with any positive integer $n$ and $m$. I would like to show that there exists a positive constant $a>0$ such that $$x^T(A^TAA^TA - aA^TA)x\geq 0$$ for all $x\in \mathbb{R}^m$.
I have zero ideas on it, but, since we know that $A^TA$ has always nonnegative eigenvalue, $a=0$ works anyway...which is not our case. I guess the key should be showing that $Ax$ is not an eigenvector with zero eigenvalue..? I have tested with some matrices and it seems true. Any idea would be appreciated. Thank you in advance!
$A^{T}A$ is semi-definite, we can find an orthogonal matrix $P$ such that $$A^{T}A=P^{T}\mathrm{diag}\left\{ \lambda _1,\lambda _2,\cdots ,\lambda _m \right\}P$$
where $\lambda_1\ge\lambda_2\ge\cdots\ge\lambda_s>\lambda_{s+1}=\cdots=\lambda_m= 0$.
Let $x=Py$, we can get $x^T\left( A^TAA^TA-aA^TA \right) x=y^T\left( \mathrm{diag}\left\{ \lambda _{1}^{2},\lambda _{2}^{2},\cdots ,\lambda _{m}^{2} \right\} -\mathrm{diag}\left\{ a\lambda _1,a\lambda _2,\cdots ,a\lambda _m \right\} \right) y$.
We only need $\mathrm{diag}\left\{ \lambda _{1}^{2},\lambda _{2}^{2},\cdots ,\lambda _{m}^{2} \right\} -\mathrm{diag}\left\{ a\lambda _1,a\lambda _2,\cdots ,a\lambda _m \right\} $is semi-definite, i.e. $$\lambda _{i}^{2}-a\lambda _i\geqslant 0~~(1\le i\le m).$$
Thus we can get $0<a\le \lambda_s$