Show that for every $n$ we have that
$$\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\left[\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)^m\sum_{l=0}^m\left(\left[\frac{1}{2^{n-1}}-2\right]^{(m-l)}{n \choose l} \right)\right]=1$$
Hint: Represent the function
$$F(x) =\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\left[x^m\sum_{l=0}^m\left(\left[\frac{1}{2^{n-1}}-2\right]^{(m-l)}{n \choose l} \right)\right]$$
as the product of two generating functions.
I'm really stuck. We know that
$$1 - \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{8} +... = \frac{1}{1+\frac{1}{2}} =\frac{2}{3}$$
So I thought it would be enough to show that $\forall m$
$$\sum_{l=0}^m\left(\left[\frac{1}{2^{n-1}}-2\right]^{(m-l)} {n \choose l} \right) = \frac{3}{2}$$
But
1) I've had a hard time trying to show that the sum above has a constant value independent of $m$ (by transforming $2^{n-1}$ in a sum of binomial coefficients, and seeing if something gets cancelled out).
2) The hint confuses me. As noticed, I wasn't applying it in my only attempt, and at the same time I don't know how to take advantage of that fact.
Let's assume we don't know any hint. A technique which is often helpful is exchanging sums.
Comment:
In (1) we exchange the series by noting \begin{align*} \sum_{m=0}^\infty\sum_{l=0}^m a_{m,l}=\sum_{0\leq l\leq m< \infty} a_{m,l}= \sum_{l=0}^\infty\sum_{m=l}^\infty a_{m,l} \end{align*}
In (2) we shift the index $m$ of the inner sum by $l$ to start from $m=0$ and we do a small rearrangement.
In (3) we simplify the expression and observe the double series is in fact a product of two series.
In (4) we apply the formula for the binomial series expansion and for the geometric series.