I'm trying to understand the problem in the picture above.
What happened to the "dz" between this step:
$$f(Z)~ dz~ \Bigg( \int \limits_{-\infty}^{z} f(x)~dx \Bigg)^{n-1}$$
and this step:
$$f_Z(z) = 2~f(z) \int \limits_{-\infty}^{z} f(x)~dx = 2~f(z)~F(z)$$
A few properties that I know:
- for continuous r.v. $P(X=x) = 0$
- $P(a < X \le b) = \int \limits_{b}^{a} f_X(x)~dx$
- Max(a, b) = (a > b) ? a : b
- Max(a, b, c)
Max(a,b,c) =
if (a >= b) and (a >= c):
largest = a
elif (b >= a) and (b >= c):
largest = b
else:
largest = c
return largest

RULE: Converting infinitesimal probability into PDF
When converting an infinitesimal probability into a PDF, remove the dx:
$$\underbrace{P(x < X < x + dx) = f_X(x)~dx}_\text{infinitesimal probability} \longleftrightarrow \underbrace{f_X(x)}_\text{PDF}$$