I was trying to think of a scenario where we draw two random samples from two different populations. Can it be a case that the samples are independent but the populations are not?
EDIT: By independent sampling, I mean that if I draw 1st sample with some observations, and then I draw a 2nd sample such that the probability of occurrences of observations in this sample is independent of the observations I got in the 1st sample. My question is, can this happen even if the populations of the two samples are dependent (let's say as an extreme case, if the populations are same)?