Is it right for me to do the following?
$x \cdot y = z \cdot y$
$x \cdot y - z \cdot y =0$
$(x-z) \cdot y= 0$
Let y = (x-z)
$(x-z) \cdot (x-z) = 0$
x = z
Similarly for another question, For $x, y, z$ in $R^3,$ show if $ x \times y = z \times y$ , $x = z$, how do I begin proving this question
If the question is:
then your answer is correct.
In the case of the cross-product, it's a little different. Assuming this time that the question is:
this can be done as follows: if $x\ne z$ take a vector $y\ne0$ which is orthogonal to $x-y$. Then $\|(x-z)\times y\|=\|x-z\|.\|y\|\ne0$, and therefore $(x-z)\times y\ne0$. It follows that $x\times y\ne z\times y$.