Is the following statement true or not?
The free group generated by two generators is isomorphic to the direct product of two infinite cyclic groups.
I know that if the generated group is abelian then the statement is True but I don't know if it's not abelian. I think it's wrong but can't come up with a counter example.
Thanks in advance.
To see this, suppose otherwise. Then $F_2$ is abelian. By the universal property of free groups, every group which can be generated by two elements is a homomorphic image of $F_2$. In particular, the symmetric group $S_5$ is a homomorphic image of $F_2$. As "being abelian" is preserved under homomorphic images, we have that $S_5$ is abelian. This is a contradiction.
(The above argument still works if you replace $S_5$ with your favourite two-generated, non-abelian group. For example, $S_3$, or any non-abelian simple group.)
EDIT: As Derek Holt pointed out in the comments to the question, this question is equivalent to asking whether all countable groups are abelian! This is because every countable group embeds into a two-generated group (which is a classical result: Higman, G. , Neumann, B. H. and Neuman, H. (1949), Embedding Theorems for Groups. Journal of the London Mathematical Society, s1-24: 247-254. doi:10.1112/jlms/s1-24.4.247).