Suppose $$C_n=X_1 X_2\cdots X_n$$ where $X_i$ is $d\times d$ matrix with IID entries sampled with normal centered at 0 and variance $1/d$.
The following appears to be true for large $d$, why?
$$\|C_n C_n^T\|_F^2\approx d(n+1)$$
Here are some numbers from a 4 samples with $d=1000$
$$ \begin{array}{c|ccccc} & \text{n} & \text{sample1} & \text{sample2} & \text{sample3} & \text{sample4} \\ \hline & 1 & 2003.99 & 1998.66 & 1999.51 & 1998.14 \\ & 2 & 3029.97 & 2990.12 & 3008.21 & 2999.13 \\ & 3 & 3967.81 & 3995.46 & 4022.33 & 4005.2 \\ & 4 & 5027.41 & 5075.39 & 4941.94 & 5057.4 \\ & 5 & 6143.21 & 5964.35 & 5844.76 & 6015.08 \\ \end{array} $$
It also appears to hold if I use the same matrix for all $X_i$, ie, $$\|X^n (X^T)^n\|^2_F \approx d(n+1)$$
Dividing entries of table by $d$ below we get near perfect agreement in table below with $d=4000$ using either $X^n$ (fixed) or $C_n$ (resampled)
(crossposted on stats.SE)

I was working on something similar to the (seemingly correct) answer you got on
stats.SE. My approach was basically identical, with the difference that I was using the fact that$$ ||M||^2_{F} = Tr(MM^T) $$
But the calculations are even more tedious in that case.