I've seen a lot of people asking questions about how to go from an implicit expression and get an explicit function.
I wonder if we can do the opposite: starting with an explicit function $d(x,y)$ and write this in a implicit form.
I think we should simply consider
$$f(x,y,z)= z- d(x,y)$$
but I'm not sure if this is the idea behind the problem.
2026-03-30 05:30:30.1774848630
From an explicit function to an implicit one
42 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in REAL-ANALYSIS
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