I have a curve given by $f(x)=\frac{x}{b^2}(1-\frac{x^2}{b^2})^{-1/2}$ for $x \in (0,b)$. Upon integration, I get that the area under the curve on the interval $(t, b)$ is given by $F(t) =\sqrt{1-\frac{t^2}{b^2}}$.
The value of $f(x)$ is $0$ for $x=0$ but grows and diverges to positive infinity as $x \to b$, but the area under the curve on the interval $(0, b)$ gives a unit area. How can a diverging curve have a finite area? Any help?
Ps: its not a homework question.
To answer your title's question, that negative sign in $f(x)=-\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{b^2}}$ is perfectly alright. Technically there should be a $+C$ appended. If $C\geq1$, then $f(x)\geq 0$ when $0 \leq x \leq 1$.
Also, since $f$ is increasing from $0\leq x<1$. This means any measuring of area under $f'$ for $0 \leq x \leq 1$ (for any constant $C$) will be positive and the world makes sense.
It is indeed strange that in mathematics (and in nature), things can have infinite perimeter but finite area (take fractals for instance).
Or instead, take geometric series' an example. You're adding an infinite number of terms (a diverging number of terms!) but the whole sum can converge.
In other words, even though $f$ approaches $+\infty$ as $x$ aproaches $b$, the graph attempts to hug the line $x=b$ so tightly that the area essentially vanishes as fast (or faster) than the terms of a converging geometric series do.